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Dear Allstat, I've come across a paper where the correlation coefficient of final measurement (Y) with percentage change from baseline (X), ie: ((Y-X)/X), was calculated. It's well known that change from baseline (Y-X) is correlated with both final and baseline, even when Y and X are uncorrelated (+0.7071, and -0.7071, respectively). What correlation is to be expected between Y and (Y-X)/X, when Y and X are uncorrelated? Regards, Sean McGuigan Boehringer Ingelheim Ellesfield Avenue Bracknell Berkshire RG12 8YS phone: 01344 74 6766 fax: 01344 74 6906 email: [log in to unmask] --- %%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%