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Paul Chandler wrote:

|<snipped stuff quoted from my posting>
 
| Point taken, Jim. But isn't it still paradoxical that as a way of
| explaining this highly-articulated theology, contradictory metaphors are
| applied simultaneously? The metaphors themselves are generally biblical,
| but put together in new ways which, to us at least, create acute tensions
| on the metaphorical level (mother/spouse, spouse/sister, etc.). Did
| medieval people not notice this? (I took this as the point of John's
| original question). 

Paradox yes, and coincidence of opposites perhaps (pace Bonaventure)? 
I would think the paradox would have been recognised as a 
metaphysical problem if someone had argued that Mary's status as 
spouse/sister could be a theological basis for what otherwise was 
deemed an incestuous relationship. I haven't come across that, but 
this a highly speculative analogy and based on an argument ex 
silentio.  

Perhaps it is our modern obsession (to which I personally have 
no objection) with the primacy of historical realities that can be 
the stumbling block here.  We immediately think of Mary first as a 
historical figure who had a specific relationship with Jesus, ie 
mother.  Then, from this point of departure we work towards 
understanding  how a medieval exegete could then present Mary as 
spouse, sister, friend, etc.

I wonder if historical status was not considered primary, but 
equivocal to the various status created by the theological notion of 
grace.  Think about how alien the idea of "pre-Christian" would have 
been to medieval Christians.  These status were as ontologically 
based as the historical experience (appropriate word?). Granted, the 
historical record was still the point of departure (Mary's place in 
Christian thought was established because historically she *was* 
considered the Theotokos), but this was not seen as only frame of 
reference.  
| 
| If they didn't, as you seem to imply, but bypassed metaphorical
| inconsistency to focus on the theological referents, then what is the
| nature of the mental change which makes a later readership feel a
| discordance of metaphors and when did it take place? And if the medieval
| approach to the mixing of such sexually-charged metaphors is so different
| from our own, what does that imply for our attempts to understand
| mentalities with regard to sexuality, etc.? 

Question one:  I have been musing about this for some 
time, after a senior undergraduate asked a similar question 
(we were reading, in a course I teach, the commentaries on Galatians 
by Aquinas and Luther -- an absolutley fascinating comparison).  I 
initially think that it has something do with the new approach to 
reading introduced by Renaissance philology, where the 
sententia-approach to reading came under heavy fire. This approach 
allowed for an exegete to render a biblical lemmata as having its own 
independant meaning.  This eventually became known as proof-texting, 
but I am suspicious about this term since I think it is more 
polemical than historically descriptive.

 I need to do some more reading on this, but I would love to hear 
what others have to say on this.

Question two:  I wish I knew.  I really like how Denys Turner began 
his book on medieval Canticles commentaries (_Eros and Allegory_), 
namely why did celibate monks cling to sexual metaphors for 
descriptions of their spirituality.  He argues that these metaphors 
were best suited for a dionysian framework of christian experience 
(did I get that right, Denys?).  If he is right, then this approach 
would have necessitated a proper understanding of the emotive and 
physicality of sexual experience, but at the same would reduce the 
actual impact of that same experience in the lives of the readers of 
the Song of songs, ie celibate monks were not necessarily 
obsessed with sex. Certainly a contradiction, and certainly alien to 
our way of thinking.  Medieval embodiment is a tricky idea, no doubt.

| 
| Thanks for the Grosseteste reference. I did not mean to imply Aquinas'
| view was unique. I seem to recall more on the subject in de Lubac's
| Exegese medievale, which I don't have at hand.

Sorry,. It's me just being overly sensitive about how much 
BobbyG is overlooked by historians.  I have an article going to press 
soon on his theory of the four senses, and I hope to edit a text 
along with it which demonstrates Grosseteste's commitment to literal 
exegesis.  

Cheers
Jim


 
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James R. Ginther         
Dept. of Theology and Religious Studies            
University of Leeds                       
Leeds LS2 9JT                     
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E-mail:                           Phone: +44.113.233.6749
[log in to unmask]             Fax: +44.113.233.3654
                            -=*=-
             http://www.leeds.ac.uk/trs/trs.html
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"Excellencior enim est scriptura in mente viva quam in 
pelle mortua" -Robert Grosseteste.


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