Hi,
We have done a longitudinal fMRI study with rats and rTMS intervention. We have scanned all rats five times (week 0, 1, 2, 3, 4) and we want to compare the connectivity maps of the different time points using dual regression (after group ICA using a baseline/week 0 template). If we just want to compare let's say week 2 to week 0, does it make sense to just use the fMRI data from these two weeks as the input data for dual regression, or is it better to use all the data (from all weeks). We have noticed that the individual timeseries we get as an output of stage 1 are different for the two approaches - and so are the final results of 'randomise'. We are not sure which of the two approaches should be preferred and why.
Any help or thoughts would be greatly appreciated.
Cheers,
Alex
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