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medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture

I have demonstrated that Lateran IV did not define transubstantiation. Innocent III simply used a past participle while discussing priestly powers in Firmiter credimus. He really endorsed the doctrine in Cum Marthae, which was heavily cited until Firmiter was heavily used at Trent.

See my article:


How the Language of Transubstantiation Entered Medieval Canon Law<http://opac.regesta-imperii.de/lang_en/anzeige.php?buchbeitrag=How+the+Language+of+Transubstantiation+Entered+Medieval+Canon+Law&pk=2246202>
Izbicki, Thomas M.<http://opac.regesta-imperii.de/lang_en/autoren.php?name=Izbicki%2C+Thomas+M.>. (2016) - In: Proceedings of the Fourteenth International Congress of Medieval canon law<http://opac.regesta-imperii.de/lang_en/anzeige.php?sammelwerk=Proceedings+of+the+Fourteenth+International+Congress+of+Medieval+canon+law> p. 1023-1044

The complexities of theological discussion of this topic is evident in Marilyn McC. Adams, Some Later Medieval Theories of the Eucharist.


Tom Izbicki

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From: medieval-religion - Scholarly discussions of medieval religious culture <[log in to unmask]> on behalf of Maija Birenbaum <[log in to unmask]>
Sent: Monday, August 14, 2017 2:39:26 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: [M-R] Transubstantiation question

medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture
It became doctrine in Lateran IV, 1215.

Sent from my iPhone

On Aug 14, 2017, at 1:14 PM, Sarah Wilkins <[log in to unmask]<mailto:[log in to unmask]>> wrote:

medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture
Dear all,

I'm working on editing a volume of essays, and a question of terminology has arisen that I thought perhaps someone here would be able to assist with.

At issue is Transubstantiation in the late medieval era (13th-14th c. Italy specifically)

What would one refer to it as in this period.
It is not officially church doctrine until Trent, correct? But calling it a "theory" didn't seem quite sufficient to me (but I'm an art historian, hence my asking opinions here).

The passage in question is:
"As theologians explored and debated over the difficult relationship between Eucharistic accidents and substance suggested by the [doctrine/theory?] of transubstantiation, that is, between the appearance of bread in the Host and its ‘bread-ness’ or, as in the case of the consecrated Host, its ‘Christ-ness’, they had to consider the relationship between outside and inside, visible and invisible."

One solution would simply to say "suggested by Transubstantiation, that is..."
Is there something else one could call it more accurately?

(I realize it is a bit odd to give such a snippet out of its larger context, but considering it is not yet published, it seems inappropriate to give more.)

Thanks for any assistance!

Best regards,
Sarah W.
--
Sarah S. Wilkins, PhD
Visiting Assistant Professor
Pratt Institute
History of Art and Design Department
200 Willoughby Avenue
Brooklyn, NY 11205

Programming Committee, Italian Art Society
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