No. For functional segregation, you'd also need to show that they are significantly different. This would be done with the contrast [1 -1]. Otherwise, you don't know that they are different.

Best Regards, Donald McLaren
=================
D.G. McLaren, Ph.D.
Research Fellow, Department of Neurology, Massachusetts General Hospital and
Harvard Medical School
Postdoctoral Research Fellow, GRECC, Bedford VA
Website: http://www.martinos.org/~mclaren
Office: (773) 406-2464
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On Mon, Jun 8, 2015 at 8:51 PM, Mike <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
Hi Donald,

Thanks a lot. How about solution 3?

Solution (3).
Combine regions A and B as a single mask, called C. Construct another linear regression model and enter V and S as the two covariates. Perform small-volume correction (SVC) analysis in region C. If the contrast (1 0) shows that region A is significantly predicted by V after regressing out the effect of S, and contrast (0 1) shows that B is correlated with S after regressing out the effect of V, I can conclude a "functional segregation" in regions A and B.

Thanks. Mike