Summary and conclusion:

There were differences in responses, from:

“we do not get specific consent for “a” or “b” genotyping. However for referral to other labs we get consent because the samples go to research labs that store the DNA for future testing”

“All our patients for genetic testing are consented, we would never assume consent, we also need to consent for the DNA storage. Please see the BSGM Guidance for your information”. http://www.rcpath.org/Resources/RCPath/Migrated%20Resources/Documents/C/consent_and_confidentiality_2011.pdf

It would be concluded that for biochemical testing there is implied consent from the patient which would include cascade testing (within reason) if it helps the original clinical enquiry. For tests such as PSA and CA125 we assume that the requesting physician has counselled the patient and the Biochemistry lab does not insist on documentary evidence of this. However it would be concluded that ANY genetic test requires specific patient consent wherever it is analysed.

I am passing this up the professional chain for comment

Martin

From: Myers Martin (LTHTR)
Sent: 10 November 2014 13:55
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: extent of patient consent required for pathology tests

Following on from the LFT debate…..Is there a consensus that ALL genetic testing requires specific patient consent, e.g. prothrombin gene, porphyria, Gilbert’s etc etc. and how should that consent be worded?

Martin

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