Hi Terry and list.
This is a great question. I’ve always thought of propensity matching as a way of doing a pre-test adjustment and so apply the rules that I would use in looking at data that has been adjusted for whatever.
I have two main rules:
1. The number of outcome events should be at least 20 times the number of variables that are used in the adjustment.
2. There should not be any ‘obvious’ variables that were ‘left out’ of the adjustment process. This is a bit subjective and I always ask about educational level and socioeconomic status of the participants, things that are usually not added to any adjustments and which in some situations are likely would lead to biased results.
The bottom line is that observational studies need to take so many more precautions in order to have low levels of bias and that is why they are classified as low quality to start out on the GRADE quality criteria.
Hope that this helps.
Best wishes,
Dan
Dan Mayer, MD
Professor of Emergency Medicine
Albany Medical College
Mail Code 34
47 New Scotland Ave.
Albany, NY, 12208
phone: 518-262-6180
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From: Evidence based health (EBH) [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Shaneyfelt, Terry
Sent: Thursday, March 20, 2014 12:24 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: [EXTERNAL] RE: Is propensity matching equivalent to randomization?
Is there a number of confounding variables you can account for after which you consider the likelihood of unrecognized confounding variables is extremely low?
This is really the crux of my question. I cant remember the exact reference but we read a large propensity matched study for journal club and a lot of variables were in the propensity model. As I thought about it I couldn’t think of anything else that could be a confounder that was not covered by what they put in the propensity model. I know the propensity model doesn’t predict the outcome but it contained everything that could be a potential confounder of the outcome. The residents asked me if this was as good as a RCT. I wonder the same thing.
From: Brian Alper MD [mailto:[log in to unmask]]
Sent: Thursday, March 20, 2014 10:26 AM
To: Shaneyfelt, Terry
Cc: [log in to unmask]
Subject: [EXTERNAL] RE: Is propensity matching equivalent to randomization?
Randomization balances the unrecognized variables (or at least increases the likelihood that the unrecognized variables will be balanced and not biasing results in an unseen way).
How many recognized covariaties must be balanced to have a “balancing” of the unrecognized variables?
It seems to me like the more propensity matching that is done the more balancing you get but how do you know when you have “reasonable certainty” for the effect on the unknown variables?
Is there a number of confounding variables you can account for after which you consider the likelihood of unrecognized confounding variables is extremely low?
I don’t have a statistical answer – just trying to rephrase the question to understand it in terms of reaching high likelihood of certainty in the estimates of effect.
From: Evidence based health (EBH) [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Shaneyfelt, Terry
Sent: Thursday, March 20, 2014 11:10 AM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Is propensity matching equivalent to randomization?
This may seem like a silly question but is propensity matching in a large observational study equivalent to randomization? Consider the propensity score to have been developed using a lot of covariates (everything you could think of and measure). As you have probably seen, large propensity matched cohorts will be similar to each other within tenths of percentage points on various characteristics. If you develop your propensity score with enough covariates what else is potentially missing that could be a confounder of the effect?
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