You may leave the list at any time by sending the commandDear All,
I have the following question which I am hoping native statisticians (I am a
physicist by training) can help me address. To set the background as to why I am asking this question: a manuscript recently submitted to a Physics journal got rejected because 1 of the 3 reviewers claims that a result presented in the given manuscript is wrong. I would therefore be very grateful to hear the opinion of statisticians.
The issue in question is as follows: Suppose we have 6 statistics (e.g z-statistics), each derived from an independent data set (i.e 6 independent data sets in total). We can assume that the number of degrees of freedom is the same in each data set, so that the corresponding P-values are also comparable. We can further assume that each independent data set is a sample from an underlying population. Under the null hypothesis (z=0), the P-values would be distributed uniformly between 0 and 1. Now, the observed P-values are in fact (3e-9, 0.04, 0.05, 0.03, 0.02, 0.005), i.e they are all less than 0.06. It is clear, at least to me, that the chance that these P-values are drawn from a uniform distribution is pretty small (<1e-8). Yet the reviewer in question claims that there is no overall significance. His/her argument is based on the Bonferroni correction: using a threshold of 0.05/6~0.008 only 2 P-values pass this threshold, which he/she then goes on to claim is not meaningful enough.
My response to the reviewer's comment is that the use of a Bonferroni correction to establish the overall significance of the 6 P-values is wrong. The Bonferroni correction is ill-suited for this particular application since it is overly conservative, leading to a large fraction of false negatives. Remarkably, the editor of the Physics journal in question finds the reviewers arguments (i.e using the Bonferroni correction) as "persuasive".
I would be most grateful for your comments.
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