Dear FSL community,
This is not a question specific to a single analysis, but rather a general question.
I have, on more than one occasion, found statistically significant clusters on one side of the brain and not on the other. However, if I loosen up the requirements for statistical significance (for instance, at p<0.07 instead of p<0.05) I find that the other hemisphere is suddenly involved also. This is always done on data that is corrected for multiple comparisons.
Personally, with that type of result, I do not believe that there is any real hemisphere-specific difference between my subject groups.
Is there any feeling as to why this occurs? Any concensus on how this type of finding should be reported in the literature?
I look forward to hearing your thoughts!
Lindsay.