Given the many problems in the crusade between the Easter and western factions, I cannot imagine Franks initiating a Byzantine liturgy in celebration of their victory.

Also my reading of various sources over the years suggests that ‘officium’ can be a very vague term. It seems to mean ‘something liturgical’ proper  to the celebration. Could be a Mass, prayers for the day, litanies, or the canonical hour(s).

best

medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture Dear all,
I have let this drop in the midst of meeting yesterday. Apologies.

Raymond talks about singing an office of praise in 1099 to thank God for being able to take Jerusalem.   He calls this the "officium de resurrectione."  I am just trying to figure out what that would have referred to. Given the circumstance, it must have been an existing office; given the place and circumstance, I though the Easter liturgy would have been appropriate for the connotations of Victory and Resurrection that the taking of the city must have evoked. But I could not be sure, and wanted learned opinion.

Indeed, a new and fancy office was written in this wake.  According to AmnonLinder (does anyone have an email address for him), one survives that dates to about 1120.  I'm increasingly convinced his dating is probably right, though I haven't actually seen the manuscript yet (which is 13th c). It follows the text of Raymond of Aguiliers in a compilation, though I don't think it should be attached to that text.  Holy Sepulchre manuscripts which date to after the rededication of the Holy Sepulchre, and one to the Jerusalem Temple, include a revised office, which is clearly related but quite different from the ca. 1120 office.  By the time the Kingdom was exiled to Acre, the role of the feast is unclear to me. It appears in some calendars, but not all, and very few post 1187 manuscripts.  This is all in the future, and makes utter sense; What I am simply trying  to ascertain was what existing office the crusader-camp-clerics turned to in 1099.  My understanding is that the liturgy in use by the Eastern Christians in, say, 1095 in the Holy Sepulchre was highly Byzantinized; but in 1099 I imagine they turned to Western sources they brought with them. Of course, its not clear whether at this point the Eastern clergy were part of the "ivimus" that the first person plural of cantavimus indicates. There is some scholarship on this, the details of which I have forgotten and to which I will refer. But that is the state of things, as is in my brain, at this moment.

thanks to all; And keep on musing if you have more muses to make. Thanks
cecilia

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