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Thank you for your answers.

Donald, in answer to your point, I used a contrast showing the difference
in activation between the two sessions (Post-Pre). The two sessions were
modelled in the 1st level design.

One further question if I may, to clarify this. Would it also constitute
double dipping if one extracts the data from around a peak of activation
for the main effect (size of pre-post difference) and correlate this with
other variables, such as psychophysics? In other words, is any such
selection procedure always circular, or is it so only if one uses as a
selection criterion the same variable one is testing (in this case
correlation with performance)?

Thank you.

Regards,
Mario Gatica



On 29 November 2011 22:31, MCLAREN, Donald <[log in to unmask]> wrote:

> A couple of points:
>
> (1) It is unclear what went into the second level analysis, pre or post
> images, the difference in pre or post, or one of the images.
>
> (2) It is very circular, you have searched the data to extract, rather
> than pick an area a priori to extract the data.
>
> Best Regards, Donald McLaren
> =================
> D.G. McLaren, Ph.D.
> Postdoctoral Research Fellow, GRECC, Bedford VA
> Research Fellow, Department of Neurology, Massachusetts General Hospital
> and
> Harvard Medical School
> Office: (773) 406-2464
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> On Tue, Nov 29, 2011 at 4:13 PM, Mario Gatica <
> [log in to unmask]> wrote:
>
>> Dear SPMers,
>>
>> I would like to ask for an opinion concerning the statistical validity of
>> an analysis I did.
>>
>> I have pre/post experiment where subjects are scanned before and after an
>> intervention, in order to compare changes in activation. During the
>> scanning sessions subjects were just passively stimulated. This main effect
>> was very robust.
>>
>> In addition to fMRI I also did psychophysical testing (outside the
>> scanner) and I am trying to find correlations between changes in
>> performance and changes in activation.
>>
>> I followed the straighforward approach of doing a 2nd level design with
>> the changes in performance entered as a covariate (1 value per subject) and
>> then the contrast "0 1" or "0 -1", as the case may be, limiting the
>> analysis to the postcentral gyrus with a mask (about 1000 voxels). With
>> this design, no voxels survived multiple comparisons correction, so I tried
>> progressively more relaxed thresholds until activation appeared (usually
>> with an uncorrected p of 0.05).  I then  made a spherical mask around this
>> coordinate and extracted the mean raw data from the individual conn* images
>> used in the group analysis (around 30 voxels), and used these to do a
>> Pearsons correlation test outside of SPM (with the psychophysical data),
>> which was positive.
>>
>> My question is, is this a valid thing to do at all or is the analysis
>> biased? On the one hand, the correlation done outside of SPM  was strongly
>> significant and made sense theoretically. On the hand, this does smell like
>> biasing the analysis. Of course such a thing would not be valid when
>> testing the main effect of interest. Does that also hold for correlation
>> with an external variable (such as behavioural performance)?
>>
>> Many thanks in advance.
>>
>> Mario Gatica
>>
>> --
>> Mario Gatica
>> Institut für Neuroinformatik
>> Ruhr-Universität Bochum
>>
>>
>


-- 
Mario Gatica
TELEFON: 01520 830 5011
Institut für Neuroinformatik
RUB