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From: "MCLAREN, Donald" <[log in to unmask]>
To: <[log in to unmask]>
Subject: [SPM] 2-group t-test stat problem
Date: Tue, Aug 30, 2011 5:09 pm
There is a common misperception that one sample t-tests translate into group differences; however, there are numerous examples of that not being the case.

Here are some illustrative examples:

Take the case where mean activity in group A is .5 and the T-statistic is 20 and the mean activity in group B is .5 and the T-statistic is 2. For the one-sample T-test you will find the there is highly significant activity in group A, but not group B. There will be no difference at the group level. 


Take the case where mean activity in group A is 5 and the T-statistic is 2.99 and the mean activity in group B is 1 and the T-statistic is 3.1. For
the one-sample T-test you will find the there is significant 
activity in group B, but not group A for a threshold of T=3. This gives the impresssion that group B is greater than group A. When you do a two-sample t-test, you find out that group A is greater than group B.

In summary, you need to be very cautious about inferring group differences from T-statistics from one-sample t-tests. In the absence of a group difference, I'm not sure if you can find a group difference.

Best Regards, Donald McLaren
=================
D.G. McLaren, Ph.D.
Postdoctoral Research Fellow, GRECC, Bedford VA
Research Fellow, Department of Neurology, Massachusetts General Hospital and 

Harvard Medical School
Office: (773) 406-2464
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On Tue, Aug 30, 2011 at 4:41 PM, Doug Terry <[log in to unmask]> wrote:

Hi Folks,



I'm analyzing 2 groups (n=20 for each group) using the 2-group t-test option and finding no differences between the groups at FWE 0.05/FWE 0.10, and very minimal differences at p=0.001 uncorrected.



I've looked at each subjects' data to make sure the pre-processed scans are okay, and that the group contrasts are correct.  The activation patterns for each group separately (1 group t test) show activation in the hypothesized regions. Visually, the two groups have similar activation patterns, but are by no means "the same", as the clinical group shows clusters of activation at the single group level (FWE 0.05) that are not shown in the control group. Obviously the differences have to be robust/reliable enough to survive the statistical contrast, but I was wondering if there is anything else I can do to elucidate differences between these groups? All suggestions welcome.




Thanks,

Doug