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It's a great shame this list is so rigidly moderated with respect to its
'No Discussion' policy, since here's a question which I and probably a
number of others would like to know the answer to, on which I have a few
thoughts which I'd like to get other people's views on, and which
probability theorists, of whom there likely are a few among the
subscribers, no doubt have much more insightful comments than the rest
of us - yet all such postings are not allowed.

Would the moderator like to suggest a list where this could be
discussed? Would John Like to post the question there?

Regards

Andrew Dunning

-----Original Message-----
From: A UK-based worldwide e-mail broadcast system mailing list
[mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of John Bibby
Sent: Wednesday, March 23, 2011 6:27 AM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Nuclear Probabilities: " If an event has probability 1/x of
occurring per year, then it occurs on average once every x years"

Hullo guys

I really should know the answer to this but my knowledge of elementary
probability is so ropey.

Regarding the statement:
" If an event has probability 1/x of occurring per year, then it occurs
on average once every x years"

A. Is it true?
B. What's a simple proof? (Note I've said nothing about independence
etc.) C. Can anyone please provide a simple example to illustrate
problems with this argument?

Thanks

JOHN BIBBY

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