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Hi everyone,

My brain is fried and it's only Monday! Hope someone can help me...

I need some clarification of the "legitimate interests" condition. I've read the guidance from the ICO on their website (http://www.ico.gov.uk/for_organisations/data_protection/the_guide/conditions_for_processing.aspx) but it doesn't help as I'm not sure it explains what is legitimate and what isn't.

The situation is this: our Children's Centres require the contact details of all women who become pregnant. We are in the process of facilitating data sharing agreements with the two NHS Trusts who provide us with maternity services to do this, but only with consent.

The Children's Centres argue that this still means they are missing their target audience, as the people who refuse to give their consent are most likely to be those who may benefit from the services the Children's Centres provide. 

Children's Centres are required by Ofsted to target all parents of children aged 0-4 (under 5s) to provide services which benefit their health and wellbeing. Ultimately Children's Centres are part of wider preventative services in the hope that children will avoid entering the social care system.

Could we argue the "legitimate interests" condition to get contact details for ALL families once they contact maternity services? 

I've never had to apply this since learning the theory as consent or vital interests has always been more than satisfactory, but I can see where the Children's Centres are coming from. Your views would be greatly appreciated.

Many thanks,

Michelle Peel
CYPS Information Governance Manager
Trafford Children and Young People's Service

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