There is one caveat with what Ronan states

 

" This corresponds to the probability that a person in a clinical trial, for instance, will have a better outcome with one treatment rather than with the other. "

 

To be really pernickety one should state 

 

" This corresponds to the probability that a person in a clinical trial, for instance, will be observed to have a better outcome with one treatment rather than with the other. "

 

One has to be very careful in interpreting overlap measures in clinical trials because the same constant causal shift (say a 10mm HG reduction in diastolic blood pressure) for every patient on active treatment would translate into a different degree of overlap depending not only on the variability of true values in the population but also on within-subject error, including measurement error.

See

U is for Unease: Reasons for Mistrusting Overlap Measures for Reporting Clinical Trials

Stephen Senn

Statistics in Biopharmaceutical Research : 1–8.

Posted online on 20 Oct 2010.

Which is available free at http://pubs.amstat.org/toc/sbr/0/0

 

Stephen

Stephen Senn

Professor of Statistics

School of Mathematics and Statistics

 

Direct line: +44 (0)141 330 5141

Fax: +44 (0)141 330 4814

Private Webpage: http://www.senns.demon.co.uk/home.html

 

University of Glasgow

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Glasgow G12 8QW

 

The University of Glasgow, charity number SC004401

 

 

 

 

From: Evidence based health (EBH) [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Ronan Conroy
Sent: 24 January 2011 10:41
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: Concepts

 

 

On 23 Jan 2011, at 14:03, Cristian Baicus wrote:



NONparametric techniques are based on ranks/signs, because mean and standard deviation have no sense (they don’t describe the population, because the distribution is not normal=Gaussian).

 

This is a misconception. So-called nonparametric techniques often estimate useful useful parameters. For example, the Mann-Whitney Wilcoxon test estimates the probability that an observation in one group will be greater than an observation in the other group (with an allowance for ties). This corresponds to the probability that a person in a clinical trial, for instance, will have a better outcome with one treatment rather than with the other. 

 

Means and standard deviations can be used to describe any distribution, so I do not understand how they can have no sense in describing, say, a uniform distribution. The mean is a useful descriptor of any distribution (and it is the only descriptor necessary for a Poisson distribution). And the standard deviation, while it can be calculated validly on any distribution, has a limited role in communication, since most people don't understand what it is – and this applies to normally distributed data as well. 

 

 

 

Ronán Conroy
[log in to unmask]
Associate Professor
Division of Population Health Sciences
Royal College of Surgeons in Ireland