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Yeah, thanks - very educative discussion!

Have a nice holiday,
Cornelius


On Tue, Dec 21, 2010 at 2:20 PM, Jeanette Mumford
<[log in to unmask]> wrote:
> Thanks guys!
>
> Jeanette
>
> On Tue, Dec 21, 2010 at 3:31 AM, Stephen Smith <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>>
>> One final point to add to the question of what FEAT does in practice:
>>
>> And now finally, to Jeanette's original question - I think (and Steve or
>> others can correct me if I'm wrong) that the orthogonalisation in FEAT is
>> done one by one, so that if you do x1 wrt x2 and x2 wrt x1, then it does the
>> second after the first one has been done already, meaning that it uses the
>> new EVs, not the original ones, and so these become orthogonal after the
>> first step and nothing happens in the second step.  It probably isn't quite
>> what you'd want in this condition theoretically, but I honestly cannot ever
>> see anyone needing such a set of orthogonalisations as in the examples
>> given, so in that case I think it is not really a problem.
>>
>> That's right - FEAT applies each selected EV's orthogonalisation in series
>> rather than all at the same time - which as MJ rightly says seems odd, but
>> isn't a problem because it doesn't make sense to tell FEAT to 'do it both
>> ways' anyway.
>> However, a related question, in case anyone is concerned given this
>> answer:  If you tell one EV to become orthogonal to *more than one other
>> EV*, then that case *is* handled correctly -    it is orthogonalised to the
>> full space spanned by the set of EVs selected, and not orthogonalised to
>> each in series (which would *not* in general give the correct
>> orthogonalisation).
>> Cheers.
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> On 12/20/2010 01:16 PM, Jeanette Mumford wrote:
>>
>> Hi!
>>
>> I'll start off by saying I think orthogonalization of regressors makes
>>
>> absolutely no sense in almost all cases, regardless, I'm curious as to
>>
>> how FEAT handles cases where people go a little wild and start
>>
>> orthogonalizing every ev with respect to all other evs.
>>
>> For example, my (rusty) geometry tells me that if I have two
>>
>> regressors, x1 and x2 and if I then orthogonalize each one with
>>
>> respect to the other to get x1_wrt_x2 and x2_wrt_x1, then cor(x1, x2)=
>>
>> -1* cor(x1_wrt_x2, x2_wrt_x1).  When I ask FEAT to orthogonalize each
>>
>> of two regressors with respect to the other it actually didn't alter
>>
>> x2.  Thus, the correlation in the orthogonalized FEAT model is 0.
>>
>> Further if somebody had 3 or more regressors and (wrongly)
>>
>> orthogonalized everything with respect to everything else, what does
>>
>> FEAT do?  It seems with all the orthogonalization it would be very
>>
>> difficult to correctly interpret hypothesis tests.  Is there a
>>
>> meaningful interpretation?
>>
>> Thanks!
>>
>> Jeanette
>>
>>
>> ---------------------------------------------------------------------------
>> Stephen M. Smith, Professor of Biomedical Engineering
>> Associate Director,  Oxford University FMRIB Centre
>>
>> FMRIB, JR Hospital, Headington, Oxford  OX3 9DU, UK
>> +44 (0) 1865 222726  (fax 222717)
>> [log in to unmask]    http://www.fmrib.ox.ac.uk/~steve
>>
>> ---------------------------------------------------------------------------
>>
>>
>>
>
>



-- 
Dr. med. Cornelius J. Werner

Department of Neurology
RWTH Aachen University
Pauwelsstr. 30
52074 Aachen
Germany

Institute of Neuroscience and Medicine
MR Physics - INM4
Research Centre Juelich
52425 Juelich
Germany

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