Given the character and number of responses to
my last New
Thread, [where I proposed that (as a kind of challenge) that the only
way a film
could really actually do philosophy was to dislodge viewers from the
way they
have been viewing and thrust them into a new perspective in order to be
able to
understand a particular film’s reason for existing] I got the feeling
that this
remark was actually opaque to folks.
“How could a film be like that?” I was imagining going on in
most minds
as they scrolled on by.
Now I would like to propose another, perhaps
more easily
contentious question:
Under what circumstances could cinema be
considered a unique
and independent language?
I am aware of Metz’s treatment of this issue,
which I will
paraphrase: Film cannot be a language because it does not have a
minimal unit
(phoneme/morpheme); it does not use arbitrary signs, and it is not a
two way
street.
I am looking for original arguments here, not
citations from
extant work.
I am thinking especially here of Mike Frank’s
to me quite
original and probing question about pictures and propositions. This has
churned
my brain quite a bit and has led to a reframing of thoughts on the
subject that
have been lurking in my head for many years.
a verbal medium can more easily include language =96 eithe=
r as authorial reflection or in quoted conversation =96 that is plainly phi=
losophical, while a medium anchored in images would find that more difficul=
t . . . to that extent there may be more philosophy, narrowly construed, in=
novels than in movies . . . but i take it that there=92s a big difference =
between QUOTING philosophy and DOING philosophy, and that this conversation=
has been about the latter
Just trying to stir up some discussion that will appeal to my own
admittedly warped interests.
And so it will rhyme I will ask again
Under what circumstances could cinema be considered a
unique and independent language?
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