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Dear Colleagues, I have recently read a manuscript about a language-fMRI study. One thing have caught my attention: they had measured 20 subjects and performed single-subject (SS) as well as random effect (RFX) analysis. For SS p= 0.001 (uncorr.) had been used, while for RFX threshold had been p=0.0005 (FDR-corrected). Despite of it, RFX results shows large activations with extent comparable with SS. Is it possible (even theoretically) that RFX with much more stringent threshold could give such a large activations? Thanks, Auer, Tibor M.D. Ph.D. Biomedizinische NMR Forschungs GmbH am Max-Planck Institut für Biophysikalische Chemie Am Fassberg 11 37077 Göttingen Germany Phone/Work: +49-(0)551-201-1725 Phone/Home: +49-(0)551-250-4576 Mobile: +49-(0)176-8012-7921 Mail: [log in to unmask] <mailto:[log in to unmask]>