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So... how do you measure or report a solid angle without invoking the 
steradian?  sterdegrees?

Ian Tickle wrote:
> James, I think you misunderstood, no-one is suggesting that we can do
> without the degree (minute, second, grad, ...), since these conversion
> units have considerable practical value.  Only the radian (and
> steradian) are technically redundant, and as Marc suggested we would
> probably be better off without them!
>
> Cheers
>
> -- Ian
>
>   
>> -----Original Message-----
>> From: [log in to unmask] 
>> [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of James Holton
>> Sent: 23 November 2009 16:35
>> To: [log in to unmask]
>> Subject: Re: [ccp4bb] units of the B factor
>>
>> Just because something is dimensionless does not mean it is 
>> unit-less.  
>> The radian and the degree are very good examples of this.  
>> Remember, the 
>> word "unit" means "one", and it is the quantity of something that we 
>> give the value "1.0".  Things can only be measured relative 
>> to something 
>> else, and so without defining for the relevant "unit", be it 
>> a long-hand 
>> description or a convenient abbreviation, a number by itself is not 
>> useful.  It may have "meaning" in the metaphysical sense, but its not 
>> going to help me solve my structure.
>>
>> A world without units is all well and good for theoreticians 
>> who never 
>> have to measure anything, but for those of us who do need to 
>> know if the 
>> angle is 1 degree or 1 radian, units are absolutely required.
>>
>> -James Holton
>> MAD Scientist
>>
>> Artem Evdokimov wrote:
>>     
>>> The angle value and the associated basic trigonometric 
>>>       
>> functions (sin, cos,
>>     
>>> tan) are derived from a ratio of two lengths* and therefore are
>>> dimensionless. 
>>>
>>> It's trivial but important to mention that there is no 
>>>       
>> absolute requirement
>>     
>>> of units of any kind whatsoever with respect to angles or 
>>>       
>> to the three basic
>>     
>>> trigonometric functions. All the commonly used units come 
>>>       
>> from (arbitrary)
>>     
>>> scaling constants that in turn are derived purely from convenience -
>>> specific calculations are conveniently carried out using 
>>>       
>> specific units (be
>>     
>>> they radians, points, seconds, grads, brads, or papaya 
>>>       
>> seeds) however the
>>     
>>> units themselves are there only for our convenience (unlike 
>>>       
>> the absolutely
>>     
>>> required units of mass, length, time etc.). 
>>>
>>> Artem
>>>
>>> * angle - the ratio of the arc length to radius of the arc 
>>>       
>> necessary to
>>     
>>> bring the two rays forming the angle together; trig 
>>>       
>> functions - the ratio of
>>     
>>> the appropriate sides of a right triangle
>>>
>>> -----Original Message-----
>>> From: CCP4 bulletin board [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On 
>>>       
>> Behalf Of Ian
>>     
>>> Tickle
>>> Sent: Sunday, November 22, 2009 10:57 AM
>>> To: [log in to unmask]
>>> Subject: Re: [ccp4bb] units of the B factor
>>>
>>>      Back to the original problem: what are the units of B and
>>>   
>>>       
>>>> <u_x^2>?  I haven't been able to work that out.  The first
>>>> wack is to say the B occurs in the term
>>>>
>>>>      Exp( -B (Sin(theta)/lambda)^2)
>>>> 	
>>>> and we've learned that the unit of Sin(theta)/lamda is 1/Angstrom
>>>> and the argument of Exp, like Sin, must be radian.  This means
>>>> that the units of B must be A^2 radian.  Since B = 8 Pi^2 <u_x^2>
>>>> the units of 8 Pi^2 <u_x^2> must also be A^2 radian, but the
>>>> units of <u_x^2> are determined by the units of 8 Pi^2.  I
>>>> can't figure out the units of that without understanding the
>>>> defining equation, which is in the OPDXr somewhere.  I suspect
>>>> there are additional, hidden, units in that definition.  The
>>>> basic definition would start with the deviation of scattering
>>>> points from the Miller planes and those deviations are probably
>>>> defined in cycle or radian and later converted to Angstrom so
>>>> there are conversion factors present from the beginning.
>>>>
>>>>     I'm sure that if the MS sits down with the OPDXr and follows
>>>> all these units through he will uncover the units of B, 8 Pi^2,
>>>> and <u_x^2> and the mystery will be solved.  If he doesn't do
>>>> it, I'll have to sit down with the book myself, and that will
>>>> make my head hurt.
>>>>     
>>>>         
>>> Hi Dale
>>>
>>> A nice entertaining read for a Sunday afternoon, but I think you can
>>> only get so far with this argument and then it breaks down, 
>>>       
>> as evidenced
>>     
>>> by the fact that eventually you got stuck!  I think the 
>>>       
>> problem arises
>>     
>>> in your assertion that the argument of 'exp' must be in units of
>>> radians.  IMO it can also be in units of radians^2 (or 
>>>       
>> radians^n where n
>>     
>>> is any unitless number, integer or real, including zero for that
>>> matter!) - and this seems to be precisely what happens 
>>>       
>> here.  Having a
>>     
>>> function whose argument can apparently have any one of an infinite
>>> number of units is somewhat of an embarrassment! - of 
>>>       
>> course that must
>>     
>>> mean that the argument actually has no units.  So in 
>>>       
>> essence I'm saying
>>     
>>> that quantities in radians have to be treated as unitless, 
>>>       
>> contrary to
>>     
>>> your earlier assertions.
>>>
>>> So the 'units' (accepting for the moment that the radian is a valid
>>> unit) of B are actually A^2 radian^2, and so the 'units' of 
>>>       
>> 8pi^2 (it
>>     
>>> comes from 2(2pi)^2) are radian^2 as expected.  However 
>>>       
>> since I think
>>     
>>> I've demonstrated that the radian is not a valid unit, then 
>>>       
>> the units of
>>     
>>> B are indeed A^2!
>>>
>>> Cheers
>>>
>>> -- Ian
>>>
>>>
>>>