Dear Greig,

You don't have to orthogonalize a regressor of interest... it happens automatically with multiple regression:  Any inference on a contrast of interest is adjusted for all other effects in the model.  This explains why you got the same result each time.

Does this help?

-Tom


On Wed, Mar 18, 2009 at 10:22 AM, Greig de Zubicaray <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
Hello list,

I've just run a multiple regression with tbss on some skeletonised FA data in a single group of subjects using 3 EVs - age, 1 target behavioural variable and 1 potentially confounding behavioural measure. I created a design matrix with the 3 normalised EVs, and orthogonalised the target EV with respect to age and the confounding EV. I assumed this would show me the changes in FA attributable to the target EV with the other 2 covaried out. This was using randomise and the TFCE option. When I display the tbss_tfce_corrp_tstat contrast image in fslview with the -b 0.95,1 threshold, most of the skeletonised data appears to correlate with the target variable. This is the case even when I use a more conservative 0.99,1 threshold. 

I found this a little surprising, so ran the same design again without orthogonalising the target EV. The results were virtually the same.

So I guess the question is, have I done anything wrong here? 

thanks in advance,

Greig



--
Dr Greig de Zubicaray  |  fMRI Laboratory
Centre for Magnetic Resonance  |  University of Queensland  |  Brisbane, QLD 4072  |  AUSTRALIA
Phone:   +61-7-3365-4250  (direct)   |  +61-7-3365-4100  (reception)  |  Fax:  +61-7-3365-3833
Email:    [log in to unmask]  |   Web:   http://www.fmrilab.net/
CRICOS Provider Number 00025B




--
____________________________________________
Thomas Nichols, PhD
Director, Modelling & Genetics
GlaxoSmithKline Clinical Imaging Centre

Senior Research Fellow
Oxford University FMRIB Centre