Isn't the first 'be' a cited infinitive verb with the
'to' left off and isn't it as citation that it acts grammatically as a noun
(phrase)?
And is this supplementary pedantic enquiry beside the
initial point?
John
let be
be finale of seem
the
only emperor is the emperor of ice cream.
ja
Can anyone think of a line where Stevens uses 'be' as a noun?
I was sure he did it somewhere in some line like
'the intricacies of is' (or the something of is: complexities?
imbrications?) but having searched his poetry on Literature Online I can't
find it anywhere. Am I thinking of Stevens? Does anyone know what line I'm
referring to?
Thanks
Giles