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Hi Hallvard,

1. Do I need to set up orthogonalisations? If so, how is this done correctly?

No. Don't orthogonalise. I think orthogonalising would allow EV1 and EV2 to explain an effect that incorporates the (different) mean performances of each group.
Doing no  orthogonalisation allows EV1 and EV2 to explain the group effects with performance differences explained out

2. How would my contrasts look like if I am interested in answering the
question "How would group2 differ from group1 if all subjects had the same
performance?"

1 -1 0
or 
-1 1 0

Cheers, Mark.

----
Dr Mark Woolrich
EPSRC Advanced Research Fellow University Research Lecturer

Oxford University Centre for Functional MRI of the Brain (FMRIB),
John Radcliffe Hospital, Headington, Oxford OX3 9DU, UK.

Tel: (+44)1865-222782 Homepage: http://www.fmrib.ox.ac.uk/~woolrich




On 28 May 2008, at 09:58, Hallvard Røe Evensmoen wrote:

Hello all,

I am interested in comparing the activation in two groups, who unintentional
differ from each other in performance. As a previous post, I would like to
answer the question "If these two groups did not differ by the covariate,
what would the activation look like?" The simplified model is as follows:

Group EV1(group1)  EV2 (group2) EV3 (performance)
1          1            0          3
1          1            0          1
1          1            0         -2.5
1          1            0          4
1          0            1         -1
1          0            1          2
1          0            1          1.7
1          0            1          1.5  

My two questions regarding this is:

1. Do I need to set up orthogonalisations? If so, how is this done correctly?

2. How would my contrasts look like if I am interested in answering the
question "How would group2 differ from group1 if all subjects had the same
performance?"

Hallvard Evensmoen