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Aga,

What I did is: I demeaned the values in EV1 and also used ­D option fir
> randomise (somehow I did it correct:).

Yes, that's correct.


> Then, I am not sure if I should model my mean or not? I did it both with
> and
> without the EV with ³1² only, results look roughly similar, what does it
> change and what does it mean?
>

If you use the -D option, there is no mean in the data to model, hence
including it doesn't hurt anything, but it is fitting nothing.


> In group comparison, I dont assume the same variances.


Randomise, as it is just using a vanilla GLM, assumes the variance is the
same for all scans.

In correlation within one group I may. Is it connected to this mean
> modeling?


No, totally separate issues.


So is this single EV all I need (yes, my values are
> demeaned and I used ­D option) or do I need to model my mean ? And then I
> have 2 EVs, does it change anything with demeaning?


As above, "-D"  ==> No mean to model


> Also, the third contrast "x(y)" is probably not meaningful... it's testing
> if
> > the average of the two regression coefficients are zero.
> >
> Hmm, I in fact thought this is the main contrast to look at:(. So is it
> then
> the first contrast that gives me info I am looking for (how TBSS values
> correlate with x, controlling for y)?
>

Multiple linear regression automatically does this.  E.g contrast [1 0] is
assessing the evidence for x while controlling for y.

-Tom
____________________________________________
Thomas Nichols, PhD
Director, Modelling & Genetics
GlaxoSmithKline Clinical Imaging Centre

Senior Research Fellow
Oxford University FMRIB Centre