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medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture

On Mon, 24 Mar 2008 15:43:22 -0400, Frank Morgret wrote:

>medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture

>George R. Hoelzeman wrote:
>> Why does John even mention the cloths? 
>If one accepts the traditional interpretation of "mathetev hon ephilei 
>ho jesous" = "the disciple whom Jesus loved" as being John himself
>then John would be writing from his own experience.  The apparent 
>neatness of the arrangement of the cloths may have struck John.
>After all, if we're dealing here with your typical Burke and Hare types, 
>they would tend not to be so fussy.


Except it seems the original language does not imply "neatly folded."  From what I'm gathering from several sources, the "neatly folded" translation is a result 
of the words used in Latin (specifically, the Vulgate) which eventually made its way into the English.  It wouldn't be the first time, however, that a theology 
was built on a mistranslation or misinterpretation of a word - consider Moses' horns or Melito of Sardis' misinterpretation of Pesach.

> 

>> In a related vein, how reliable is the description of the burial cloths in the Gospel of John?
>>   
>Any seminary library worthy of the name will contain approximately 12 
>metres of books dealing inconclusively with this question.
>Until the late 18th century, the description was considered reliable 
>because it was considered an eye-witness account.  More
>recent accounts, e.g. "The DaVinci Code", come to different 
>conclusions.  You pays yer money and you takes yer cherse.


>Frank


Well, obviously, although equally obvious not all re-evaluations of the original perspective on the Gospels is a farce like Da Vinci Code.  Regardless of the 
Gospel (and I would include the various gnostic and other writings here) the focus of the writers was more oriented to theology/instruction/justification of 
tradition than historical accuracy.  As the Synoptics seem to suggest, the recollections about Jesus could be adapted to suit the writer's intent.

Which brings me sort of back to the question of the Johannine tradition:  what was the point of refering to the wrappings at all?  The idea of suggestion 
divine involvement (which would include the attempt to negate theft) seems most plausible, although without being able to ask the writer, its going to be 
hard to be sure.

George (am wenigsten)

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