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My problem is related to the recent query about the distribution of 1/X. Consider two random variables X and Y, and the further random variable X/Y. What can be said about the distribution of X/Y, given only that X and Y have the same arithmetic mean? Julian Wells Senior Lecturer in Economics Faculty of Arts and Social Sciences Kingston University Penrhyn Road Kingston-upon-Thames KT1 2EE Phone: 020-8547 2000 ext. 62124 Fax: 020-8547 7388