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medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture

> AFAIK the official "church" possition in the middle ages was that marriage
> was a freely-entered contract between two people,

Yes. But the two people who enter into the contract are the Bride's Father
and the Bridegroom. A woman was not a full legal person at any age and could
not IIRC enter into a contract unless she was backed by her closest male
relative who was a full legal person.

The church would back a woman who did not want to marry because she wanted
to be a nun, but would not back a woman who wanted to say no to one man in
order to marry someone else.


but I presume it's not a
> myth that (at least amongst the nobility) there were plenty of arranged
and
> political marriages where the parents mde the decisions - and the
> Anglo-Saxon law codes seem pretty clear that if someone "abducts" a woman
to
> marry her (it's unclear whether this presumes that she is unwilling)
that's
> a crime....

The point is, that a woman's willingness (or otherwise) did not come into
the question. Her opinion was not of legal significance.

So, my question...
>
> If a noblewoman elopes with a commoner (someone who her parents wouldn't
> have approved of, and who could afford a reasonable endowment for her
> anyway), then has either SHE or HE committed a crime under cannon or
secular
> law? And does this situation change through the Middle Ages?

Well, we all know what happened to poor old Peter Abelard ...... (12th
century)

The furore that followed his castration - probably at the hands of employees
of Heloise's Uncle Fulbert (Tho' for the record F denied it) was not that he
had been castrated as such, but that PA was a clerk, and as a clerk he
should have been exempt from any punishment that involved the shedding of
blood whatever his offence. But then a clerk should not have been commiting
fornication in the first place.... The cleric PA received a layman's
punishment for a layman's offence. That was the real scandal.
>
> An obscure one, but I figured I'd see if anyone could help....

I think it was also accepted that if a man discovered a woman under his
protection (wife, sister, daughter, mother, aunt &c) unlawfully in bed with
a man, and he killed the man (or both) at the time of the discovery, he
would be acquitted of murder. So I think your hypothetical eloping couple
needed to run a long way ...

Do you know the Border Ballad in which the seven brothers discover their
sister in bed with her lover ? Six of them pronounce variations of "Oh how
sweet!" but the seventh brother says nothing at all but runs "his bright
brown blade" straight through the lover's body and the girl wakes up to find
she is lying in a pool of blood ......
The Ballad is seen as a tragedy, but no where does it suggest the seventh
brother had acted unlawfully (Mind you, there wasn't much law in the
Scottish Borders until after the union of the Crowns ....)

Final point, Peter Abelard in his "Carmen ad Astralabium" - written after
his castration - says that if a woman marries without the consent of her
parents she should forfeit her inheritance. A serious matter in a world
where inherited land was the basic economic unit.

Your eloping commoner had better be rich .... And if he owns land, Dad will
know where to find them ... With his men at arms ...

I think the convent was the safer option ....  :-)

BMC

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