medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture
Greetings!
I believe that at least part of the answer is the fact that the
word itself, daimones, is Greek.
Then there is the heavy influence of Neoplatonism in the creation
of the role of daimones in what might be termed the "heavenly
hierarchy." From Middle-Platonic and Neo-Platonic theories (see esp. the
Chaldean Oracles) daimones, usually under the control of Hekate, the
Cosmic Soul, function like angels in the Judeo-Christian ideology, serving
as mediators between the realms of humans and of the gods. In a pagan
context, this has a beneficial value. However, when "demonizing" (sorry
for the pun) the pagan religions, the Greek daimones-spirits become the
Christian concept of "demons" and thus acquire a purely negative image
(as Hekate herself goes from Cosmic Soul to 'Goddess of Witches') Thus,
you go from Greek spirit to Greek demon. I rather imagine that it was
only a short step from there until not merely the Greek daimones, but the
Greek gods themselves were 'demonized.'
To the best of my knowledge, much of the early scholarship that
dealt with such philiosophies (such as the oracles mentioned above) was
greek in language and inspiration. The hierarchtical universe as created
with intermediary daimones between humans and deities was not so
prominent in the Roman philosophy, and, thus, the path towards equation
of god=demon did not occur.
A good place to look for more info. on this is _Hekate Soteira_
by Sarah Iles Johnston.
Two cents worth,
Stephanie
Angus Graham wrote:
>
> medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture
>
> How early, I wonder, is the equation of the Greek pantheon with demons?
> I am working on Martin of Braga, who in the latter half of the sixth
> century names individual Greek gods and equates them with demons/[wo]men
> of evil repute. Why did he not use the Roman pantheon? Was this
> propaganda? If so, on whose behalf? I am woefully ignorant on this
> period and find myself baffled. Was this 'simply' the rhetoric of the
> times? Is there a sub-text that I, in ignorance, am missing? Who else
> was doing this? Is there a book or so I can read?
>
> I have no problem displaying my warts, and so I refer the reader to my
> own translation of Martin's _De Correctione Rusticorum_ at:
>
> <http://freespace.virgin.net/angus.graham/Braga.htm>
>
> My main question is why GREEK and not Roman? Yes, I am unashamedly
> fishing. I will also give thanks for anything I may use.
>
> Angus Graham, Oman
>
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