I think it depends what the dial in user accesses. The transfer is, in my
view, only relevant under the act if PERSONAL DATA is transferred. And then
only relevant if it is the personal data of an EEA Data Subject (including
that user).
However I would register as transferring outside the EEA if non EEA access
is allowed or planned.
-----Original Message-----
From: Duncan Smith [mailto:[log in to unmask]]
Sent: 18 December 2001 09:23
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Is this a transfer?
8th principle and all that.
If I allow a individual from outside the EEA dial-in access to my server
(and database) has a transfer taken place?
My view would be that despite all the tech. arguments about thin
clients, data not being stored, view only etc. etc. the spirit of the
Act would be that a transfer HAS taken place.
Anyone think differently?
Regards,
Duncan S Smith
Snr. Consultant
Ashton Court Consultants Ltd, Northampton, UK
T: 01604 864 781 F: 01604 864 611 M: 0777 556 8180
Mailto:[log in to unmask] Web: www.accl.co.uk
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