In this situation I would argue that the obtaining is unfair. As a caller I
do not know that you have captured and recorded my telephone number, nor the
purposes for which you hold the data, to whom you disclose it, etc. Although
there are technical actions I can take to prevent you capturing my number
(the blocking you mention), I should not have to do this.
Surely the whole point here is that you have OBTAINED my number, rather than
being "given" it by me. Giving implies a conscious process. If I stand
behind you at the cashpoint machine and catch sight of your PIN as you enter
it would you consider that you have "given" that information to me?
Stuart Cashmore
Data Security Manager
McKessonHBOC (UK), No. 1 Nine Elms Lane, LONDON SW8 5RR
Tel. 020-7819 5083 (with Voicemail)
Mob. 07799-790019
Fax. 020-7819 5100
e-mail [log in to unmask]
<mailto:[log in to unmask]>
-----Original Message-----
From: Duncan Smith [SMTP:[log in to unmask]]
Sent: 06 September 2001 11:59
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Caller Line Identification & Call centres
Dear group,
Scenario: I operate a call centre and receive inbound calls
requesting
information for my products and services. The telco system brings up
the
callers telephone number (CLIP) which is input onto the contact
database
by the tele-agent. The caller is never asked for their telephone no.
Later follow up calls use the captured telephone number as part of
an
outbound follow up campaign (after TPS screening of course :-))
Is this unfair obtaining, or can we assume that the caller, by not
exercising their right to remain anonymous (either by line blocking
or
call blocking) has given us their telephone number freely?
Duncan S Smith
Principal Consultant
e-mail: [log in to unmask]
gsm: +44 (0)777 556 8180
Company Profiles
"The process of Improvement"
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