Modern literature is notorious for its explicit description of sexual
acts. One does not normally include Kipling as an author of this
genre. But I am surprised always in reading Mary Postgate at the
orgasmic conclusion. Did Kipling really mean to provide us with this
interpretation (even as an alternative) or is it a product of the change
in literary conventions? I wonder what Carrie thought of it?
Jeffery Lewins
from Dr Jeffery Lewins,
Kipling Fellow, Magdalene College
& Engineering Department,
University of Cambridge
(UK) 01223 276285
facs 363637
CB3 0AG UK [log in to unmask]
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