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>Can it can be shown that medieval heresy or divergent thought was >always 
>or necessarily precipitated by poverty or by a deteriorating >economic or 
>social position?

Certainly this is what Norman Cohn seemed to be arguing in _The Pursuit of 
the Milennium_, although his theories have been largely (and maybe 
unjustifiably) discredited.

>As in the case of the theory of modern revolutions,
>could it not have been the opposite, namely an expression of >hostility
>to the burdensome economic regulation of the "orthodox" church on the >part 
>of a growing economic group or community?

Isn't this precisely the point? Branding something as 'heterodox' is 
contingent upon a common understanding, and later enforcement of the 
orthodox. The Waldensians, for example, began as licensed preachers and were 
only accused of heresy when investigations into their teachings were 
discovered to trangress the current orthodox position.

Regards,
Don
-----------------------------
Dr Don Mowbray

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