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Re diagnostic evidence levels. I've been looking at the levels of evidence for diagnostic tests at the CEBM site. What about a test which has never been studied as a diagnostic test in a single paper BUT we know the prevalence of positive results in people with and without the disorder from a different source? Example:. Total IgE in asthma. There are good epidemiological data, so we know the prevalence of raised IgE in people with and without asthma and could construct a LR from this. If the supporting studies are good and large, (but not a properly conducted study of a diagnostic test with consecutive patients suspected of having the disease etc), is the level of evidence high or low? What do people think? %%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%