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Was this truly an infarct ? Falling asleep as a presenting complaint would 
certainly be unusual in anotherwise presumably independent and ambulant 
patient (given the location of the scenario ie: the hairdressers. Was there 
any other diagnostic evidence of an infarct or was an old ecg available ? 
 Presumably she did have an enzyme rise subsequently in keeping with an 
infarct and evolving changes on her ecg ?

Regards

John

-----Original Message-----
From:	Simon Bell [SMTP:[log in to unmask]]
Sent:	20 March 2000 10:26
To:	[log in to unmask]
Subject:	? Thrombolysis.

I would be interested in peoples oppinion of the
following senario:
We had a 93 yr old lady into A+E who presented with a
collapse.....she kept "falling asleep" while she was
having her hair done, so the hairdresser suggested she
came to A+E. There was no history of Chest pain or
Diabetes.
This lady had an ECG showing an acute inferior infarct
of less than 12 hrs old (likly).
She was in SR, no failure clinically or on her CXR,
and was normotensive.
AS a knee jerk reaction she was given aspirin and
prepared for thrombolysis with Streptokinase.
This lady had had a CVA 6 yrs ago with a right
hemiplegia from which she just about remained
independant.
I was coutious about thrombolysing this lady.....not
becouse of her stroke 6 yrs ago, but I questioned the
benefit in a lady of this age in terms of added
morbidity. I am well aware that the elderly do best
from thrombolysis in terms of coronary flow as
measured in the TIMI flow studies, but how does that
relate to added yrs of life given that this lady's
starting age was 93.
She was also highly dependant on her left side for her
independant state and from a cardiac point of view she
was doing very well, probably just a few peri-infarct
arrhythmias causing her synptoms in the hairdresser's
salon. If thrombolysing her is going to do little in
terms of added yrs of life, why risk making her
dependant by the possibility of an intracranial event.
Aspirin alone is still as good as thrombolysis alone.
Anyway...after great calm debate she was thrombolysed
and was doing well 2-days later...
I would like to know:

Was I being overcautious?

Is there evidence for a correct answer to the above
problem?

What are peoples views?

Dr Simon Bell
SpR A+E Medicine
University Hospital Lewisham.


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