What you are describing is a grey area, but the rule is that pharmacists
should not alter scripts given out by GPs except to correct errors.
In other words, you *might* set up such an agreement with a GP, but if
anything went wrong (e.g. a patient complained) you could be found wanting.
A
> -----Original Message-----
> From: [log in to unmask]
> [mailto:[log in to unmask]]On Behalf Of Jeff Green
> Sent: 18 July 1998 20:42
> To: [log in to unmask]
> Subject: RE: Re[2]: Is it legal.
>
>
> Andrew,
>
> >what cannot (technically) be done is for the pharmacist to
> >substitute a private for an FP10, without asking the GP.
>
> So why should not a blanket agreement between GP and pharmacist be legal?
> i.e. is there a legal difference between asking the GP after the FP10 is
> presented (legal by your example above) or before the FP10 is
> presented (my
> example).
>
> Regards
>
> Jeff Green
>
> Community Locum and Consultant Pharmacist
>
> [log in to unmask]
>
>
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