In a message dated 22/12/98 09:46:19 GMT, Ahmad wrote:
<< How many GPs here who cannot tell the difference between febrile and
afebrile person by placing the hand on the forehead?
>>
Given the general consensus against taking temperatures with a thermometer
does this now constitute a substantial body of medical opinion such that this
would be a profitable line of defence in any litigation arising from a
possible failure to recognise a fever. Who'll come forward in court? What do
the medico-legal types think?
Robert Upshall
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