Both questions are meaningless, that's my point. Of course, a deaf person can read.
David (Latane) was suggesting that Dylan’s lyrics are not literature because they need to be heard to have any effect. This suggests that his lyrics (perhaps lyrics in general) can’t or shouldn’t be read as texts, but only heard. True many lyrics don’t read well as texts, and I’ve accepted this here already, whilst also pointing out that many poems don’t read well as texts. The whole discussion really, as Tim asks, is asking what is literature.
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Robin Hamilton wrote:
If you rephrase it as you do there, David (Lace, not Latane), it becomes utterly meaningless. Or are you saying that because someone is deaf, they can't read?
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