I’ve been reading the song and poetry discussion here with great interest. Many of its themes have engaged me for many years, and so it’s good to see such a discussion (perhaps long overdue) appearing here.
From what I’ve been able to glean from it, there seems to be two camps of opinion: One camp has Jamie and Peter arguing that song lyrics differ from written poetry in that they don’t consist of the various prosodic and metric formulations that are classically associated with written poetry. The other camp has David and Tim arguing that this might be true but it doesn’t “devalue” the emotional and aesthetic appreciation of a song lyric—even when separated from the music—because prosody no longer matters in evaluating the worth or not of a poetic text. Have I summarised these positions faithfully?
Regarding the Jamie/Peter camp. I agree that written poetry has historically (at least up until High Modernism) stressed the importance of prosody and metre (though there are some exceptions, such as the poetry of Whitman and Dickinson, and possibly others I’m unaware of) but I don’t think that song lyrics necessarily can be devoid of these aspects. Song lyrics by Bob Dylan and Leonard Cohen do, indeed, have some prosodic elements (I think Christopher Ricks has looked at this in the case of Dylan), and they also have other poetical elements, such as rhyme, alliteration, allusion, etc. It might be true, as far as I can tell, that song lyrics by these writers don’t contain any strictly formal poetical metre, but neither does the majority of contemporary written poetry that is highly regarded in some quarters. Does this, then, suggest that such prosody-lacking written poetry should be evaluated as being more similar to song lyrics than to written poetry, if the lack of prosody in song lyrics is seen (at least by Jamie and Peter—as I understand their position to be) as distinguishing it from written poetry. In other words, is written poetry that does not contain any prosodic elements or metrics really more like a song lyric than written poetry that uses these elements. If so, that would be a very controversial proposition, as it would be dismissing nearly all of the poetry written since High Modernism—including experimental poetry. Of course, I might have misunderstood Jamie's and Peter’s position on this, and so am open to correction.
Regarding the David/Tim camp position, I admit, I do have sympathy with it, if only because the Jamie/Peter camp position (if I’ve represented it faithfully) re-categorises nearly all written poetry that has no prosody, as being distinct from written poetry that does have it. This jettisons much of what has come to be regarded as poetry.
Again, I admit I might have misunderstood both side’s positions. The discussion hasn’t been that easy to make sense of to be truthful.
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