The rules are not less restrictive (except for Latin Roman Church texts--the later, the more rigid the control) but merely reflect the speech of a different culture: Galileans did not speak the same Hebrew as someone from Tarsus; why would they write the same Greek? Alexandrine Greek was certainly different from Attic Greek--even though were Koine. Allegedly, recensions in the Greek text were made at Edessa and Antioch to the Greek text of the NT, which were reflected in the Syriac text; however, that was only a 19th century fantasy unsupported by any record or reference.
-----Original Message-----
From: The Digital Classicist List [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Marco BÜCHLER
Sent: Thursday, November 01, 2012 12:32 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: [DIGITALCLASSICIST] [spelling standardisation in Greek and Latin]
Hi,
i do recent work on a passage how to pre-process historical texts - focussing on Greek and Latin. Nowadays, we have something a standard for writing a word. Everything that differs is commonly understood as a spelling error.
As more we go back on the timeline, I assume, as less restrictive those rules are. I do ask me all the day if we know when the first spelling reform was made? Or what are early kinds of spelling reforms like that a person X is seen as authority so that all (or most) follow his or her "guidelines"?
For any help, thanks in advance,
Marco
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Marco Büchler
Natural Language Processing Group
Department of Computer Science
University of Leipzig
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ws-h
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