Hullo guys
I really should know the answer to this but my knowledge of elementary
probability is so ropey.
Regarding the statement:
" If an event has probability 1/x of occurring per year, then it occurs on
average once every x years"
A. Is it true?
B. What's a simple proof? (Note I've said nothing about independence etc.)
C. Can anyone please provide a simple example to illustrate problems with
this argument?
Thanks
JOHN BIBBY
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