Dear listers. I just received some results from an econometric
specification that tries to explain the factors behind out-of-pocket
expenditures in health. The model ran was a Tobit, due to the character
of only positive (never negative) values of health expenditures. The
results are below (estandar error in parenthesis)
Program X (1 if individual has the program)
-13.7587
(0.9225)
Sex (woman=1)
-19.0491
(1.0489)
Floor (firm floor=1)
-5.1460
(1.0551)
Drainage (1 if the individual HH has drainage)
-2.9560
(1.0020)
Roof (firm roof=1)
-10.7581
(1.1253)
Income
-0.0011
(0.0002)
Age (greater than 60=1)^
2.3724
(1.2164)
The question is: individuals that are enrolled in the program X have a
lower probability of spending out-of-pocket for health services
provision. My question is the value of -13.75 is measured as a marginal
effect but it is 13.75 percentage points? or is a reduction of 13.75%?
How do I refer to the magnitude of the coefficient?
Thanks
--
__________________________________________________________________
*Rodrigo Briceño*
Project Manager
Sanigest Internacional
+506 22-91-12-00 ext. 113 * Oficina* *Costa Rica*
+506 22-32-08-30 *Fax
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