Jane
For laryngographic analysis, we always plot our F0 distributions again
log(F0) so that it is easier to compare the ranges of speakers that have
markedly different modal F0. So, for example, a man with a range from
100-200Hz has the same range as a woman from 150-300Hz. I guess you
could call this 'normalisation of range', but it does not of course
normalise the modal value of F0. Semitones seem a pretty reasonable
unit to use for measuring modal F0 and range since they are units that
are well defined, have some kind of relationship to perception, and
certainly in my experience lead to distributions which have a reasonably
normal shape (at least for regular voice).
Mark
Jane Setter wrote:
> Dear All
>
> I feel on relatively safe ground when it comes to looking at features
> of speech in terms of Hz, but recently it has been recommended to us
> that we convert the Hz into semitones, or look specifically at
> semitones, in order to carry out normalisation of data.
>
> Can anyone advise us what is to be achieved by using semitones rather
> than Hz, and / or suggest a means of normalising data? We are looking
> at F0 in various populations of children (with all the problems that
> brings), and comparing mean F0 and pitch range.
>
> Many thanks
>
> Jane Setter
> [log in to unmask]
--
Mark Huckvale, Director MSc Speech and Hearing Science
Phonetics and Linguistics, University College London
www.phon.ucl.ac.uk
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