Dear Dc Nichols and other stats experts,
I'm a bit confused about FDR correction - I have data that show some
activity let say in regions A and B using a F contrast after FDR 0.05
correction (regions A and B p corr = .009). Regions A and B show
reversed effects (gp1>gp2 and gp2>gp1). If I look at the same data with
t contrasts I have the region A for a positive t contrast (still FDR
0.05 and p= .007 ) but nothing for the reverse negative t contrast -
indeed the region B is now at p corr .06. How is it possible to get such
a difference? and in this case which contrasts have to be used F or T?
Thank you very much in advance,
Best
Cyril
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