Hi Christopher,
Thanks for you insightful feedback. I'm still curious
about the "Maya" "Magic" connection. As a practitioner
of Thelemic Magic, or magick, it seems that
manipulation of the veils of Maya in alignment with
Will is a key element in what I understand as magic.
Grounding terminology in praxis makes sense to me.
That's my personal bias as a radical pragmatist,
however.
Best,
Mark
--- "Christopher I. Lehrich" <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
> Mark,
>
> As I understand it (not being a philologist or a
> Sanskritist), it rather
> depends on what you mean by "derived from." There
> are so many other
> words and languages along the way, and no easy
> causality or the like.
>
> But even supposing this were the case, why does it
> matter? As an
> example, both "divine" and "devil" ultimately stem
> back to the same
> linguistic root, by way of at least one striking
> reversal of meaning
> among Zoroastrians (the Sanskrit _devas_ become
> _divs_ and switch sides,
> just as _asuras_ switch sides to become _ahuras_ in
> this new
> cosmological binarism).
>
> The origins of a word may be interesting, but they
> hardly tell us much
> about how we ought to use them as scholarly
> analytical categories.
>
> Chris Lehrich
>
> Mark Shekoyan wrote:
>
> >Isn't Magic derived from the sanskrit word maya?
> Magic
> >as the manipulation of maya???
> >
> >
> >
> >
> >oo.com
> >
> >
>
> --
> Christopher I. Lehrich
> Boston University
>
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