---------------------------- Original Message ----------------------------
Subject: Re: [Fwd: Re: Help]
From: "Vsevolod Shneer" <[log in to unmask]>
Date: Tue, October 11, 2005 8:20 pm
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Clearly, it is sufficient to consider the case a=1 (otherwise take y=x/a).
Then, since 0 <= X <= 1, we have
Var(X) = EX^2 - (EX)^2 <= EX - (EX)^2 = EX (1 - EX) <= 1/4.
>
>
> Mariathas Judes Tagore writes:
>
> > Hi,
> > Can you help me how to solve this problem?
> > If P(0<= x <=a) = 1 show that var(x)<= a^2/4.
> >
> > Thank you
> > Judes
> >
> >
> >
>
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