Dear SPM community,
I'm a little bit confused about the auto-regression model (AR(1)). As
I understand it, a kind of regression is performed to estimate
correlation over time. How is the actual correction applied?
Is the correction for 'true' degrees of freedom determined for each
voxel seperately? (SPM only gives df for the whole brain, right?)
Matthijs
Matthijs Vink
Functional Imaging - Schizophrenia
www.geocities.com/matthijs_vink
Neurosciences Division - Rudolf Magnus Institute
University Medical Center
Room A.01.126
Heidelberglaan 100
3584 CX Utrecht
The Netherlands
tel. (31) 30 250 9994 (work)
tel. (31) 30 231 0171 (home)
www.fMRI.nl
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