Kevin,

To your list of questions I would also ask what is the definition of
rearfoot varum (varus?) as Brian intends it.  To the best of my knowledge we
don't know or can not as yet differentiate the exact anatomical conditions
that produce that condition which we call rearfoot varus.  We can only see
the result which is an inverted calcaneal bisection when the STJ is in the
neutral position.  Without first knowing all of the anatomical factors that
can result in a rearfoot varus condition, then how can we answer Brian's
question as follows:
> Is rearfoot varum the result of a congenital anomaly?  If so, are there
any
> publications supporting this viewpoint?  Or is rearfoot varum the result
of
> postnatal trauma, pathomechanics, nutritional or other disorders?  More to
> the point, does it really exist at all?
> I suggest, like forefoot varum, rearfoot varum is a myth.

Is tibial varum also a myth?  Hummm?  I suppose it is if you don't accept
the mainstream definition of the condition or wish to utilize the standard
techniques used to determine if the condition is present.

Respectfully,
Jeff Root


----- Original Message -----
From: "Kevin Kirby" <[log in to unmask]>
To: <[log in to unmask]>
Sent: Tuesday, July 16, 2002 8:01 PM
Subject: Re: Rearfoot Varum: Does it exist?


> Brian:
>
> You wrote:
>
> <<I suggest foot hyperpronation is generated from dysfunctional forefoot
> mechanics, not
> rearfoot pathomechanics.>>
>
> Please provide a definition for "foot hyperpronation".
>
> Please provide a definition for "dysfunctinoal forefoot mechanics".
>
> Please provide a definition for "talar supinatus".
>
> Once I understand exactly what these terms mean, then I may be able to
> answer your questions listed below.
>
> <<For over 40 years, many Podiatrists accepted the existence of forefoot
> varum.  As late as 1987 (McPoil 1987) research was conducted, evaluating
> the correlation between forefoot {varum} deformities and talar supinatus.
> However, the very existence of forefoot varum was challenged by Kidd
> (1997), and since his work, few Podiatrists would argue the validity of
> {congenital} forefoot varum.  Does rearfoot varum fall into this same
> category?
> Is rearfoot varum the result of a congenital anomaly?  If so, are there
any
> publications supporting this viewpoint?  Or is rearfoot varum the result
of
> postnatal trauma, pathomechanics, nutritional or other disorders?  More to
> the point, does it really exist at all?
> I suggest, like forefoot varum, rearfoot varum is a myth.  I suggest foot
> hyperpronation is generated from dysfunctional forefoot mechanics, not
> rearfoot pathomechanics.>>
>
> Cheers,
>
> Kevin

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