Dear All,
I recently ran a logistic regression for hypertension on BMI. As usual, I presented the results with an OR, 95% CI, and p-value. What I feel puzzle about is a comment from a reviewer asking for "the standard cut-off value of OR=1 for BMI". Can anyone suggest if this is possible (from the derived logistic regression equation) or making sense?
Your help would be much appreciated. Many thanks in advance
Regards.
Ly-mee
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