There seems to be a difference between these two descriptions of John Smith’s
tenure (from a Chancery bill of 1652). Is there enough quoted here to say what
it is?
1. John Smith was seised of the Manor landes and premisses aforesayd as of his
freehold for the tearme of his life And that the reuersion therof expectant vpon
his death was settled vpon James Smith & his heires.
2. John Smith pretendeth and giveth out in speeches that hee is seized in his
demesne as of fee and in the Manor & premisses aforesayd And that the said James
Smith had noe power nor title to sell or Convay the reuersion therof vnto
William Brown.
Thanks,
Adrian Brockett
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