The logical grammar of language is not shaped and niether does it really
shape. It is what it is regardless of gender. that is why the rules of
language are indifferent to gender. Here I am not talking about the
politics of the use of language, that is, how people use language. That is
another matter. In this we come back to intention, which has nothing
essentially to do with the rules of language.
On Sat, 10 Feb 2001 11:59:08 +1100, [log in to unmask] wrote:
>>If one does not have a mastery of language, that is if one
>>does not know that language serves him and not that he is subservient to
>>language, then one can not even overcome the rules of language in order to
>>use it for his own true thought.
>
>Daniel - this bothers me, because it doesn't acknowledge the ways in
>which language shapes as well as is shaped - as evident in your question:
>what do women have to do with this?
>
>A
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