As a professor of Economic History, currently researching in the
effects of mining on economic performance of Spanish regions, I would like
information about the same question in Britain and Ireland for the sake of
camparison. Were the mining regions able to industrialize or were they just
producers of inputs for other's regions industries? Were the mining regions
among the poorest or the richest by 1914? I would very much appreciate any
comment, informations or reference about this issue.
Thanks in advance.
Rafael
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